Medical malpractice question...?

Ok, in short, a friend of mine went to the ER for a UTI and was prescribed 10 days worth of Cipro. It's now past the ten days & she still isn't better, in fact, she's worse. So she called for an appointment with her OBGYN, but she was told there was no information on a urine culture to determine said uti. So, my question is...how can a doctor prescribe a medication without doing the proper test? And could the fact that my friend is worse off be due to being prescribed Cipro?